Take the best choice from the following four answers, please.
1. Chief complaint consists of ________.
a. history of present illness
b. biographical data
c. main symptom(s) and duration
d. all symptom(s) or signs
2. The feature of physical signs is ________.
a. subjective disturbance
b. patient's feeling
c. objective finding
d. as same as symptom
3. The temperature of high fever is ________.
a. 37.4~38°C
b. 38.1~39°C
c. 39.1~41°C
d. above 41°C
4. ________ shows high temperature from 39~40°C, which continues for days or weeks with fluctuation more than 2°C.
a. Continuous fever
b. Remittent fever
c. Intermittent fever
d. Undulant fever
5. In malaria, the fever curve often shows as ________.
a. low fever
b. periodic fever
c. recurrent fever
d. irregular fever
6. Fever frequently occurs ________.
a. only in infectious diseases
b. only in noninfectious illness.
c. not only in infection but in many noninfectious illness
d. by various infectious agents (bacteria, viruses, fungi)
7. Edema results from ________.
a. increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased oncotic pressure or disrupted capillary
permeability
b. increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and colloid osmotic pressure
c. decreased oncotic pressure and disruption of capillary endothelium
d. increased vessel permeability and leakage of protein
8. Pitting edema in the lower extremities is one of the characteristics of ________.
a. pneumonia
b. right heart failure
c. hepatitis
d. renal diseases
9. Inspiratory dyspnea indicates ________.
a. acute pulmonary edema
b. cardiac asthma
c. obstruction of intrathoracic airways
d. large airway obstruction
10. ________ definitely indicates left heart failure.
a. asthma
b. short breath
c. keeping a siting position
d. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
11. Skeletal landmarks include all but ________.
a. intrasternal angle
b. ribs
c. spinous process
d. none of the above
12. According to the division of lobes of the lung, all of the following are correct except ________.
a. the lower lobe is indeed the dependent lobe
b. the lower lobes are the anterior lobe
c. the right middle lobe is wedged between the upper and the lower anteriorly.
d. The designation of upper and lower lobes of the lung is not altogether correct.
13. Chest tenderness is not usually elicited when suffering from ________.
a. intercostal neuritis
b. pneumonia
c. rib fracture
d. cartilaginous inflammation
14. A patient tends to breathe through pursed lips ________.
a. by doing so, he relieves a high intraluminal pressure
b. by doing so, he remains airways collapse
c. it shows the patient have been in onset of asthma
d. all of above are incorrect
15. Pleural rubs ________.
a. occur in late acute pleurisy with massive effusion
b. are more dull in quality than ronchi
c. are unaffected by cough
d. are close to the ear and lessened by pressure of the stethoscope
16. Three depression sign refers to the depression in ________.
a. the suprasternal fossae
b. the supraclavicular fossae
c. the intercostal space
d. all of the above
17. Variation of respiratory rhythm includes ________.
a. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
b. deep-fast respiration
c. Kussmaul's respiration
d. tachypnea
18. Vocal fremitus increases because of ________.
a. loud voice
b. high pitch
c. thick chest wall
d. all of the above.
19. Decreased or absent vocal fremitus rarely occurs in ________.
a. emphysema
b. lung consolidation
c. pneumothorax.
d. obstructive atelectasis.
20. All of notes as follows are percussion notes except ________.
a. fremitus
b. tympany
c. dullness
d. resonance
21. Hyperresonance is normally caused over ________.
a. pneumonia
b. pneumothorax
c. emphysema
d. pleural effusion
22. Normal percussion ________.
a. over the upper anterior is more resonant than the lower one
b. on right upper chest is duller than that on the left
c. on back is more resonant than that on front
d. on left lower chest along the anterior axillary line is flatness
23. The downward lower lung margins occur in ________.
a. emphysema
b. atelectasis
c. peritoneal effusion
d. megalohepatia
24. The correct methods of percussion on the extent of diaphragmatic excursion are as follows but ________.
a. percuss the lower lung margins with the quiet respiration first
b. ask the patient to exhale deeply and to hold his breath
c. go on percussing along the scapular line downward until the resonance becomes dull
d. the last step is percussing downward from the higher point at the same line until the
resonance becomes dull
25. Decreased diaphragmatic excursion suggests ________.
a. pulmonary inflammation
b. severe effusion
c. severe pneumothorax
d. wide pleural thickness
26. When the auscultation begins, ________ is wrong.
a. the examiner should instruct the patient to breath a little deeper and faster
b. the patient's position can be sitting or sleeping
c. sometimes cough is necessary
d. comparison is absolutely not needed
27. The vesicular breath sound is characterized in inspiratory phase by ________.
a. shorter duration
b. weaker sounds
c. lower pitch
d. all of the above are incorrect
28. Bronchial breath sound is produced by
a. the result of air flow going in the bronchioles
b. the result of air flow going out the bronchioles
c. the turbulence in the mainstem and bronchioles
d. the turbulence in the vocal entrance, trachea or mainstem
29. Bronchovesicular breath sound is heard normally in all of following regions except ________.
a. the 3rd and the 4th intercostal spaces anteriorly
b. the 5th and the 6th intercostal spaces posteriorly
c. the 6th and the 7th intercostal spaces laterally
d. all of above
30. Decreased or absent vesicular breath sounds occur in ________.
a. acidosis
b. hypermetabolism
c. chronic bronchitis
d. all of above.
31. Delayed expiratory sounds suggests all but ________.
a. bronchitis
b. asthma
c. obstructive emphysema
d. the upper airway's block.
32. The moist rales ________.
a. present normally
b. are produced by broken bubbling of air through thick secretion
c. are classified into the coarse rales, medium rales, fine rales, and crepitus
d. all of above are correct
33. Characteristics of moist rales are
a. long
b. loud
c. apparently in both end of respiration
d. not diminished by cough.
34. For rhonchi, ________.
a. the mechanism is similar to moist rales
b. they are apparent in inspiration
c. sonorous rhonchi are characteristic of asthma
d. diffused rhonchi often occur in bronchial asthma, chronic bronchitis or cardiac
asthma
35. If a patient shows protrusion of precordium, it may indicate that ________.
a. he is healthy
b. he suffers from organic cardiac disease
c. he is a patient with coronary heart disease
d. he suffers from arrhythmia
36. A diffuse impulse means that the area of apical impulse is more than ________cm in diameter.
a. 2~2.5
b. 2.5~3
c. 3~3.5
d. 3.5~4
37. Right ventricular enlargement causes a change of apical beat in position towards .
a. left
b. right
c. both left and right
d. downward and outward
38. In the left 3rd or 4th parasternal area, systolic thrill are occasionally felt due to________ .
a. congenital lesions of the interventricular septum
b. pulmonary valve stenosis
c. mitral valve stenosis
d. aortic valve regurgitation
39. The cardiac dullness enlarged towards two sides may result from________ .
a. left ventricle enlarged
b. right ventricle enlarged
c. hydropericardium
d. emphysema
40. The 2nd aortic area is located in________ .
a. the 5th left intercostal space, 1 or 2 cm medial to the midclavicular line
b. the 2nd left intercostal space just lateral to the sternum
c. the 3rd or 4th left intercostal space lateral to the sternum
d. the 2nd right intercostal space just lateral to the sternum
41. Pulse deficit often occurs in________ .
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. trigeminal beats
d. atrial fibrillation
42. Normally, it is in old persons________.
a. P2>A2
b. P2 d. no P2 43. is most important in differentiation between S1 and S2________. a. Longer pause between S1 and S2 b. That S2 is clearly audible in the pulmonary valve area c. That S2 is higher in frequency and shorter in duration than S1 d. That S1 could be identified by synchronous palpation over radial artery 44. A loud S1 may be heard in________ . a. mitral stenosis b. mitral regurgitation c. aortic stenosis d. aortic regurgitation 45. Louder S2 in the 2nd right intercostal space just lateral to the sternum is heard with ________. a. damaged semilunar valve b. hypertension c. hyperthyroidism d. pulmonary artery hypertension 46. In , the splitting of S2 is clearly audible with inspiration________. a. CRBBB b. atrial-septal defect c. complete left bundle branch block d. aortic valve stenosis 47. That splitting of S2 is clearly audible with inspiration is refered to as ________. a. normal splitting b. fixed splitting c. paradoxical splitting d. separated splitting 48. is usually heard in ventricular failure________. a. Protodiastolic gallop b. Presystolic gallop c. Opening snap d. Pericardial knock 49. The opening snap occurs________ . a. during the later phase of ventricular filling b. in the early phase of systole c. in the mid-phase of diastole d. soon after S2 50. In mitral valve prolapse syndrome, ________ and late systolic murmur could be hear d. a. summation gallop b. pericardial knock c. aortic ejection click d. middle and late systolic click 51. The mid- and late diastolic murmur caused by mitral stenosis assume a ________ quality. a. blowing b. rumbling c. musical d. ejecting 52. ________ murmur is quite loud and also accompanied by a thrill. a. Grade I b. Grade II c. Grade III d. Grade IV 53. The murmur of mitral regurgitation may transmit with the direction ________. a. to left axilla b. to carotid arteries c. to apex d. down along the left border of the sternum 54. Murmurs that originate on the right side of the heart frequently increase in intensity ________. a. during expiration b. during inspiration c. during exercise d. during the change of position 55. ________ is very useful in differentiation between functional and organic murmurs. a. The murmur found in children or young adults b. Blowing or ejection in quality c. The murmur located in pulmonary valve area d. The signs of heart enlarged found 56. In ________, a diastolic murmur with less intense and shorter in duration, which is termed as Austin Flint murmur, could be heard in the apical are. a. mitral stenosis b. mitral regurgitation c. aortic stenosis d. aortic regurgitation 57. A soft diastolic murmur called as Graham Steel Murmur may be heard over the pulmonary valve area when ________ exists. a. mitral stenosis b. mitral regurgitation c. aortic stenosis d. aortic regurgitation 58. The distension of external jugular veins is not the sign of ________. a. left heart failure b. right heart failure c. pericardial constriction d. pericardial effusion 59. ________ is valuable indication of left ventricular failure. a. Water-hammer pulse b. Paradoxical pulse c. Pulsus alternans d. Hepatojugular reflux 60. ________ often occurs in aortic regurgitation. a. Water-hammer pulse b. Paradoxical pulse c. Pulsus alternans d. Hepatojugular reflux 61. The number where the pulse sound disappears is the ________. a. systemic pressure b. systolic pressure c. pulse pressure d. diastolic pressure 62. Increased ________ happens frequently in anemia, hyperthyroidism, aortic valve regurgitation, high fever and vigorous exercise. a. systemic pressure b. systolic pressure c. pulse pressure d. diastolic pressure 63. In hyperthyroidism, some special eye signs could be found, for example, the retraction of the upper lids which is refered to ________. a. Stellwag's sign b. Horner's syndrome c. Moebius's sign d. Ectropion . The distension of external jugular veins is an important sign of ________. a. congestive heart failure b. pericardial constriction c. pericardial effusion d. all of the above 65. The hepatojugular reflux sign positive indicates the cause of hepatomegaly as ________. a. hepotohemia b. hepatitis c. hepotoma d. hepatocirrhosis 66. is elicited by having the patient take a deep breath while the examiner maintains pressure against the abdominal wall in the region of the gallbladder________. a. Moebius's sign b. Stellwag's sign c. Murph's sign d. McBurney's sign 67. A special maneuvers, , may be helpful in the palpation of spleen________. a. rolling the patient on his left side with the left leg straight and the right knee flexed b. rolling the patient on his right side with the right leg straight and the left knee flexed c. rolling the patient on his left side with the right leg straight and the left knee flexed e. rolling the patient on his right side with the left leg straight and the right knee flexed 68. It is necessary to listen to the bowel sounds for periods of at least over the abdomen. a. 30 seconds b. 1 minute c. 2 minutes d. 4 minutes 69. is one of deep reflex (physical reflex). a. Babinski's sign b. Achilles jerk c. Hoffmann relex d. Brudzinski's sign 70. is one of the most reliable signs in neurology and should be tested for in all patients________. a. Babinski's sign b. Patellar reflex c. Hoffmann relex d. Brudzinski's sign 71. The QRS complex represents________ . a. ventricular repolarization b. ventricular depolarization c. ventricular contraction d. ventricular filling 72. The T wave represents________ . a. atrial depolarization b. atrial repolarization c. ventricular depolarization d. ventricular repolarization 73. The duration of a normal QRS is________ . a. 0.06~0.08s b. 0.08~0.10s c. 0.06~0.10s d. 0.08~0.12s 74. The right atrial hypertrophy does not include________ . a. a prominent P wave b. a wide bifid P wave c. the amplitude of P wave is greater than 0.25mv d. ''pulmonary P" 75. The left ventricular hypertrophy includes . a. right axis deviation b. right ventricular high voltage c. left ventricular high voltage d. normal ST-T 76. A wide, bizarre QRS complex, greater than 0.12see in duration, is a typical of :________ a. PVC b. PAC c. PJC d. normal 77. The atrial flutter with fixed conduction ratio typically result in rhythm with QRS complexes________. a. Regular, wide b. irregular, narrow c. irregular, wide d. regular, narrow 78. In VT, have no fixed relationship to________ . a. QRS, BBB b. P, QRS c. P, T d. QRS, T 79. During typical second-degree AVB, P wave is not followed by________. a. every, prolonged PR interval b. at least one, QRS complex c. every, QRS complex e. at least one, prolonged PR interval' 80. In MI, abnormal Q waves appear in leads II, III, aVF________. a. anterior b. inferior c. lateral d. posterior' 81. According to the level of Hb, severe anemia should be________ . a. < 30 g/L b. < 60 g/L c. < 90 g/L d. < 120 g/L 82. Iron deficiency anemia results from________ . a. the disorder of hemopoiesis in bone marrow b. RBC destroied too much or too earlier c. acute blood loss d. deficiency of hemopoietic materials 83. Nucleus shift to left can be seen in________ . a. severe acute infection b. megaloblastic anemia c. administration of anti-metabolic drug d. IDA 84. Oliguria means that urine volume in 24 hours is ________. a. < 400 ml b. < 1000 ml c. 1000 ~ 2000 ml d. > 2500 ml 85. Mycroscopic hemoturia is defined as RBC in per high power field________. a. > 1 b. > 3 c. > 5 d. < 5 86. The color of hemoglobinuria is________ . a. bloody b. reddish c. strong tea d. dark-yellow 87. Normal urine protein is between ________. a. 40 ~ 60 mg/24hrs b. 20 ~ 80 mg/24hrs c. 100 ~ 150 mg/24hrs d. >150 mg/24hrs 88. is elevated in cirrhosis________. a. a2 globulin b. b globulin c. albumin d. g globulin . A patient with HBsAg(+), HBeAg(+) and anti-HBc IgM(+), he is in the status of ________. a. low infectivity b. late convalescence c. conferring immunity d. active viral replication and high infectivity 90. If macrophage is found in stool microscopic test, it highly suggestes________ . a. gastric ulcer b. bacterial dysentery c. rectum carcinoma d. Crohn's disease
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